by Dreams End » Mon Jul 31, 2006 6:37 pm
<!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr><br>Why then the different genealogies, if they're trying to have their accounts accepted as factual? <hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--><br><br>Good question. then why not make them accurate rather than "skipping a few generations" and making people like you fill in the gaps...which, if the gospels are "literally" true, should not be necessary. Why not say "This is the genealogy from his mother's side and this one from Joseph's? Instead, you INTERPRET it that way...<br><br>Those two gospels were written by two different people. They didn't consult each other and they weren't historians...so the accounts differ. This doesn't bother me as I have no vested interest in assuming, a priori, that they are literally and factually true...whether the intent of the writers was to create a factual document or not.<br><br>Here's Luke:<br><!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr><br>Luke 3<br>23 And Jesus himself, when he began to teach, was about thirty years of age, being the son (as was supposed) of Joseph, the son of Heli,<br>24 the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Melchi, the son of Jannai, the son of Joseph,<br>25 the son of Mattathias, the son of Amos, the son of Nahum, the son of Esli, the son of Naggai,<br>26 the son of Maath, the son of Mattathias, the son of Semein, the son of Josech, the son of Joda,<br>27 the son of Joanan, the son of Rhesa, the son of Zerubbabel, the son of Shealtiel, the son of Neri,<br>28 the son of Melchi, the son of Addi, the son of Cosam, the son of Elmadam, the son of Er,<br>29 the son of Jesus, the son of Eliezer, the son of Jorim, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi,<br>30 the son of Symeon, the son of Judas, the son of Joseph, the son of Jonam, the son of Eliakim,<br>31 the son of Melea, the son of Menna, the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan, the son of David,<br>32 the son of Jesse, the son of Obed, the son of Boaz, the son of Salmon, the son of Nahshon,<br>33 the son of Amminadab, the son of Arni, the son of Hezron, the son of Perez, the son of Judah,<br>34 the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor,<br>35 the son of Serug, the son of Reu, the son of Peleg, the son of Eber, the son of Shelah,<br>36 the son of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shon of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shem, the son of Noah, the son of Lamech,<br>37 the son of Methuselah, the son of Enoch, the son of Jared, the son of Mahalaleel, the son of Cainan,<br>38 the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.<br><hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--><br><br>Look at the first lines. Joseph, son of Heli...etc. So where is Mary in that?If it's Mary's lineage, why say who Joseph's father was and then his father. How about Mary's father...or better yet...mother. Should be matrilineal anyway, shouldn't it?<br><br>Now Matthew...in reverse order:<br><!--EZCODE QUOTE START--><blockquote><strong><em>Quote:</em></strong><hr><br>Matthew 1:1 The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham.<br>2 Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judah and his brethren;<br>3 and Judah begat Perez and Zerah of Tamar; and Perez begat Hezron; and Hezron begat Ram;<br>4 and Ram begat Amminadab; and Amminadab begat Nahshon; and Nahshon begat Salmon;<br>5 and Salmon begat Boaz of Rahab; and Boaz begat Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse;<br>6 and Jesse begat David the king. And David begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Uriah;<br>7 and Solon of her that had been the wife of Uriah;<br>7 and Solomon begat Rehoboam; and Rehoboam begat Abijah; and Abijah begat Asa;<br>8 and Asa begat Jehoshaphat; and Jehoshaphat begat Joram; and Joram begat Uzziah;<br>9 and Uzziah begat Jotham; and Jotham begat Ahaz; and Ahaz begat Hezekiah;<br>10 and Hezekiah begat Manasseh; and Manasseh begat Amon; and Amon begat Josiah;<br>11 and Josiah begat Jechoniah and his brethren, at the time of the carrying away to Babylon.<br>12 And after the carrying away to Babylon, Jechoniah begat Shealtiel; and Shealtiel begat Zerubbabel;<br>13 and Zerubbabel begat Abiud; and Abiud begat Eliakim; and Eliakim begat Azor;<br>14 and Azor begat Sadoc; and Sadoc begat Achim; and Achim begat Eliud;<br>15 and Eliud begat Eleazar; and Eleazar begat Matthan; and Matthan begat Jacob;<br>16 and Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.<br>17 So all the generations from Abraham unto David are fourteen generations; and from David unto the carrying away to Babylon fourteen generations; and from the carrying away to Babylon unto the Christ fourteen generations. (ASV)<hr></blockquote><!--EZCODE QUOTE END--><br><br>In Luke....40 generations betwixt Joseph and David. Now, Matthew says Joseph was son of Jacob and Luke says Heli...so which is it? Is it a misprint. Is the fact that Luke has forty generations between Joseph and David and Matthew has only 14 just a matter of leaving out a few generations?<br><br>Now, this is a bit off topic, but ole Mel is a believer in literal scripture as well, I guess. So when someone...the original gospel writer, a later copyist or translator...who knows....added the bit about the blood of Jesus being on us an all our generation, he took it literally. I would suggest one needs to be able to "interpret" a bit, as you do, to allow that times and motivations for the original gospel writers (who were Jewish anyway, so I can't figure they would have been the ones to add the blood on our future generations bit) may have allowed some very human foibles to creep into the telling of the story. If we can "interpret" that Luke meant Mary when he said Joseph, then I think we are safe to interpret that God did not curse the Jews for all time. It wasn't, according to the story, until after the Ressurection that any of even Jesus's closest followers got who he was, so why would Jews just in the crowd be expected to know what even his own followers didn't grasp. Why would that statement have been made?<br><br>My "interpretation" is that it was inserted into the tradition later, at a time of tension with Jews, which ebbed and flowed within the Church like a tide. Generations might pass in which relations were fine then bam, inquisitions, banishings and lynchings...often with a very economic or political agenda. <br><br> <p></p><i></i>