barracuda wrote:David Duke and the KKK are hardly "fringe". David Duke received 671,009 votes when he ran for the governorship of Louisiana, which was 55% of the white voters in the state. The website run by his ex-wife, Stormfront, welcomes over 40,000 unique visitors per day. He likely has significant support within the Tea Party.
I don't know about the Tea Party, given the fact that the Koch brothers have been described as the Tea Party's "financial engine". You may not know this, but the Koch brothers are part of an influential pro-Israeli network running a very well-funded and multi-faceted campaign to spread anti-Muslim hatred in the US. It's hard to imagine them making common cause with David Duke, though you never know; strange bedfellows and all that. On the other hand, compared to Israel's loyal hate-mongers in the Tea Party, the government and in the 'Islamophobia' industry, David Duke is a small fish indeed.
Sounder, I don't think it was "rigorous" for c2w to accuse me of being "very antisemitic". I expected a lot better from you, c2w, than such a vicious personal attack (notwithstanding the bubbly hearts and smiley face).
Anyway. Let's see if we can divine from the context what prompted you to lash out in such a mean way.
Regarding the statement: "California is a scary, racist place for Jews to live, but not for Muslims", you responded:
c2w wrote:all the statistics suggest that's simply (and quite literally) a fair observation.
For pointing out the difference between individual racism and institutionalized racism, and because I asked a logical question about whether those statistics distinguished between say, refusing to give an employee time off to celebrate a holiday, or making a rude remark, and bombing a house of worship, or even killing someone, you responded:
c2w wrote:Sure. If you insist on making otiose comparisons. And also on minimizing, dismissing. denying and/or remaining blind to all signs of prejudice against Jews (some of it institutional, in this country and -- to a much greater extent -- elsewhere) as it actually occurs, I guess that might mean something besides....Oh, sorry. No, it doesn't. It's just antisemitic. You're very antisemitic, Alice.
By the way, I had to look up "otiose". It means:
o·ti·ose/ˈōSHēˌōs/
Adjective:
Serving no practical purpose or result.
Indolent; idle.
Really? It serves "no practical purpose or result" to ask perfectly valid questions about the evidential basis for your claim that Jews are persecuted in California? Only if by "practical purpose or result", you mean accepting your rather outrageous statement on faith.
Now this is interesting: if I fail to meekly accept your unexamined, unsourced statistics which "prove" that Jews are more targeted by racism, including institutional racism, than Muslims in California (700% more!), then this makes me "very antisemitic". In other words, to avoid being labeled "very antisemitic" I must agree, without question or credible evidence, that California is a "scary, racist place for Jews to live".
At the same time, I must "minimize, dismiss, deny and/or remain blind to all signs" that certain influential Jewish political, religious and law enforcement authorities, and even wealthy members of the business elite are disproportionately implicated in anti-Muslim, anti-Arab racist incitement designed to make, not just California, but pretty much everywhere else, into a scary, racist place for Muslims. According to you, even to acknowledge this fact is "discriminatory".
In other words, to avoid your accusations, I must "see" institutional prejudice against Jews where it doesn't exist, and to blind myself to institutional prejudice by Jews where it does exist.
Regarding that video I posted, showing people exercising what you describe, c2w, as their right to free speech:
c2w wrote:Well. Since it wasn't, in fact, a hate crime but rather an exercise of the exact same free-speech rights that people who wish to deny the Holocaust can (and do) avail themselves of legally in California -- as I thought that you and I quite agreed on principle that they should be able to do, btw -- I'd say that it VERY probably wasn't counted as one. Are you suggesting that you think it should have been?
First, according US law, it does constitute a hate crime:
Hate Crime Law & Legal Definition:
A hate crime is usually defined by state law as one that involves threats, harassment, or physical harm and is motivated by prejudice against someone's race, color, religion, national origin, ethnicity, sexual orientation or physical or mental disability. ...
It is the right of every person, regardless of race, color, religion, national origin, ethnicity, or physical or mental disability, to be secure and protected from threats of reasonable fear, intimidation, harassment, and physical harm caused by activities of groups and individuals. Link
Second, when you say,
Since 2001, however, about 26 percent of all hate crimes in in California have been anti-black; about seven percent have been anti-Jewish, and about one percent have been anti-Muslim.
In these statistics, do you include or exclude the exercise of the kind of "free speech rights", which in the case of the mob harrying the Muslim families, you say "wasn't, in fact, a hate crime"?
The reason I ask, is that when I asked a similar question earlier, your answer was that I am "very antisemitic". If yes, then wouldn't that be a glaring double standard on your part? If no, then I repeat my question: what criteria did your anonymous researchers use, to determine what does and doesn't constitute a hate crime?
What I'd really like to know, is what motivated you, c2w, to react to my question about the evidence for your claim that Jews are subjected to institutionalized racism in California, by accusing me of being "very antisemitic"? What does disputing a spurious claim of systemic racism have to do with being "very antisemitic"?
Gilad Atzmon might shed some light on this, in view of what he describes as the secular, modern version of "Jewish identity":
Within the concept of Jewish identity, Jewish suffering and victimhood are set as unique Jewish symptoms. For a Jew to celebrate his identity means to celebrate Jewish pain, to visit and to revisit the agony. To be a Jew is to religiously believe in the Holocaust. To be a Jew is to be chased. To be a Jew is to be able to find an anti-Semite under every stone and behind every corner.
He continues, showing why it is necessary to ask this question:
Within such a notion of Jewish identity and bearing in mind the Zionist expansionist project, it is hardly surprising that Jewish collective ideology had become a bipolar schizophrenic volley between Victimhood and Aggression. Link
Aggression against whom? First, aggression against the Palestinian people, of course. For decades, it was simply denied: there was no aggression. The Palestinians were happy, prosperous and thriving under Israeli rule. The "refugee problem" was the fault of the Arabs; they caused it, and it's their responsibility to solve it. The Palestinians opposed Israel only because they are "antisemitic".
Then, there's aggression against outsiders who dare to dispute any part of this narrative, in the form, naturally, of the "antisemitism" slur, frequently with serious consequences, commensurate with the target's credibility -- the greater the credibility, the graver the consequences. Also for decades, anybody who denied that Jews have the "right" to maintain an illegal military and colonial occupation, to steal land and treat people like animals because they are not Jews, was "antisemitic" (or a "self-hating Jew"). Now that the West Bank is effectively annexed, Jerusalem has largely been "Judaized" and the Palestinians have either all been expelled or squeezed into less than 12% of their own land, it's ok to 'criticize' the occupation. That is not necessarily 'antisemitic' any more, unless you're in a position to do anything about it, like say, if you're an American president.
Speaking of politicians, while it's ok for American elected officials to boast that they view their role as "guardians of Israel", and for Israeli politicians to boast of how easily they manipulate the US, to even acknowledge these facts (unless you view these as good things) is "antisemitic". To point out that near-unanimous unconditional support by US political candidates and officials for Israeli impunity might be related to the disproportionate power of campaign contributors loyal to Israel is "antisemitic".
What is antisemitism? It's hard to say, because its meaning is as fluid as "Jewish collective rights", which include the 'right' to wield the accusation of "antisemitism" or "self-hater" for the purpose of intimidating or even threatening people even (especially?) into violating their own principles or integrity. In practice, a lot of these "Jewish collective rights" are not even rights in the way I understand the word. For me, human rights are indivisible, and the violation of anybody else's rights is in a very real sense a violation of my own. Similarly, to respect the rights of others is to affirm mine. But in the case of "Jewish collective rights", all too frequently what's meant is "prerogatives":
pre·rog·a·tive/priˈrägətiv/
Noun:
A right or privilege exclusive to a particular individual or class.
A faculty or property distinguishing a person or class.
These include, in effect, the 'right' to define reality for others, to even, in some cases, to commit crimes against other people. It's all very tiresome, being ordered what to think, what to say, what parts of reality we're allowed to acknowledge, what we aren't supposed to notice and also, the belief in a unique category of 'victim' whose victimhood is tautological.
This goes to the heart of the issue we're discussing. Is this thread only, or even mainly, about Gilad Atzmon? From my point of view, no. It's about reality, and our freedom to share our individual perceptions of it, and to exchange insights and experiences we've acquired, to discuss them intelligently and honestly, without malicious and ignorant attempts to squeeze us into somebody else's suffocating pigeonhole.